The New England Patriots have officially signed outside linebacker Jesse Luketa, who previously played for the Arizona Cardinals and the Los Angeles Rams. The announcement was made on Thursday, marking a significant addition to the team’s defensive lineup.
Luketa, 27, brings experience to the Patriots after spending the latter part of last season on the Rams’ practice squad, including the playoffs. He began his NFL career with the Cardinals, being selected in the seventh round of the 2022 draft from Penn State. Over his first three years in the league, Luketa appeared in 31 games, accumulating 35 tackles, three sacks, a forced fumble, and five quarterback hits.
Unfortunately, Luketa’s previous season ended prematurely due to a thigh injury he sustained during a victory against the Patriots in December 2024, preventing him from making any contributions last season. Despite this setback, he stands at 6 feet 3 inches and weighs 260 pounds, showcasing versatility with experience on both defense and special teams.
In New England, Luketa is expected to add depth at the outside linebacker position, where he will compete for a spot on the roster during training camp this summer. He will be joining a competitive group that includes notable players like Harold Landry, Anfernee Jennings, Elijah Ponder, and Bradyn Swinson. Notably, top pass rusher K’Lavon Chaisson is anticipated to enter free agency next week, which may open up further opportunities for Luketa to secure a more pivotal role within the team.
The Patriots look to bolster their defense as they prepare for the upcoming season, and Luketa’s addition could prove valuable in their efforts to strengthen their roster.