Drew Dalman, formerly the center for the Atlanta Falcons, has made the unexpected decision to retire from the NFL at just 27 years old. According to a report by ESPN’s Adam Schefter, Dalman notified the Chicago Bears on Tuesday about his retirement, which comes just one year after signing a lucrative three-year, $42 million contract with the team.
Dalman, who was drafted in the fourth round of the 2021 NFL Draft out of Stanford, quickly made his mark in the league. He earned a starting position with the Falcons during his second season, where he played all 17 games in 2022, contributing to one of the league’s top-performing offensive lines under former head coach Arthur Smith. Despite his talents, the Falcons were unable to retain him as a free agent this past offseason, leading him to the Bears.
The news of Dalman’s retirement has sent shockwaves throughout the league, particularly as it comes after he achieved his first Pro Bowl selection in 2025. In light of his sudden departure, the Chicago Bears are already in search of a suitable successor. NFL Network’s Ian Rapoport reported that the team is hosting free agent center Tyler Biadasz, a former starter for the Washington Commanders who was recently released.
Dalman’s quick exit from the NFL at such a young age adds a layer of intrigue to his career, leaving fans and analysts pondering the reasons behind his decision. While his impact on the field was profound, his retirement opens new avenues and opportunities for both him and the Bears as they prepare for the upcoming season. The organization is now tasked with finding a capable player to fill the substantial void left by Dalman.