The Chicago Bears have made a significant move to bolster their offensive line by acquiring center Garrett Bradbury from the New England Patriots ahead of the upcoming free agency period. This trade, first reported by NFL Network’s Ian Rapoport, involves the Bears sending a fifth-round pick in the 2027 NFL Draft to New England in exchange for Bradbury.
This strategic decision comes in the wake of Drew Dalman’s unexpected retirement at the age of 27, just a year after signing a lucrative three-year contract worth $42 million with the Bears. Dalman’s retirement leaves Chicago in urgent need of a reliable center, making the acquisition of Bradbury all the more crucial.
Last season, Bradbury demonstrated his abilities by starting all 17 games for the Patriots and contributing significantly to the team’s Super Bowl journey, which ultimately concluded with a loss to the Seattle Seahawks. As a cost-effective option, he is set to earn $4.7 million in 2026, marking the final year of a two-year, $9.5 million deal he signed with the Patriots last year.
While the Bears had shown interest in Tyler Linderbaum, a highly sought-after center expected to command a significant contract in free agency, the acquisition of Bradbury does not eliminate their chances. He serves as an affordable depth option and could potentially act as a backup plan if the team fails to secure Linderbaum in the coming week.
This transaction demonstrates Chicago’s proactive approach to rebuilding their offensive line and highlights their commitment to ensuring the team’s success in the upcoming season. With the right additions, the Bears are positioning themselves to be competitive in the league, instilling hope for their fan base as they head into free agency.